this post was submitted on 29 Aug 2024
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"Too many" kinda sounds right to my ear because beans is plural, but the second logically seems right because its served by volume and is not 'countable' as ordinary (non-destroyed) beans might be.

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[–] robolemmy@lemmy.world 77 points 2 months ago (1 children)

When it comes to refried beans, “too many” or “too much” are both incorrect. The correct construction is “may I have some more please?”

[–] kambusha@sh.itjust.works 13 points 2 months ago (2 children)

Please sir, may I have some more 🥺?

[–] neidu2@feddit.nl 13 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago) (2 children)

Señor*

Also, I'd love to see a version of Oliver Twist where the orphanage exclusively serves tex-mex for some reason.

19th century london orphan taste buds who are used to the blandest of the blandest slop only get to eat really spicy food at the orphanage for the added cruelty.

[–] Rhynoplaz@lemmy.world 7 points 2 months ago

HOW CAN YOU HAVE ANY FLAN IF YOU DON'T EAT YOUR BEANS!?!

[–] xia@lemmy.sdf.org 5 points 2 months ago

A twist on Oliver Twist with Churro twists.

[–] DemBoSain@midwest.social 3 points 2 months ago

You can't have any pudding until you eat your meat.

[–] BearOfaTime@lemm.ee 32 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago) (6 children)

Since the word "beans" is plural, and countable, it's "many".

"Many" is for things that are countable, "much" is for things that aren't. e.g. Water - you'd say "too much water" but you wouldn't say "too much cups of water" but "too many cups of water".

Though "refried beans" is a thing on its own, I could go either way. Like if you were spooning beans onto my plate, I may say "too much!".

How's that for a confident, clear answer? 😆

[–] superkret@feddit.org 20 points 2 months ago (3 children)

Try to count a can of refried beans and get back to me with a result.

[–] SpaceNoodle@lemmy.world 17 points 2 months ago

One can.

Done.

[–] rbesfe@lemmy.ca 9 points 2 months ago

The plural on the word takes precedence over the actual countability of the thing. Unless you want to start calling it a can of "refried bean"

[–] BearOfaTime@lemm.ee 2 points 2 months ago

Lol, I know, right?

On my plate it's a volumetric thing, so a single unit.

But it is "beans" (plural) in a can.

[–] palordrolap@fedia.io 6 points 2 months ago

A technically correct alternative would be to drop that plural "s" but forego any uncountable noun that describes the form the beans take: "I had too much refried bean today."

In the wrong context it might evoke the idea of one enormous bean that the speaker was unable to finish, but like I say, technically correct.

[–] Gordon@lemmy.world 4 points 2 months ago (1 children)

So you'd normally say "that's too much!" in which case the subject "that" is plural and countable so therefore "much" would be correct.

Otherwise you should say "you have given me too many refried beans!" since the beans are volumetric and not countable entities.

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[–] Cris16228@lemmy.today 3 points 2 months ago (1 children)

TI(R)L. Today I Re-Learned.

Thanks for this. I have basic English knowledge and this helps me

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[–] scytale@lemm.ee 2 points 2 months ago (1 children)

I wouldn’t consider beans countable, and would put it in the same category as rice or noodles. So I’d say “too much” is the correct term.

[–] SLVRDRGN@lemmy.world 2 points 2 months ago (1 children)

One noodle/ a bowl of noodles. Or one bean, a bowl of beans.

But you wouldn't say: one rice. You'd say one grain of rice. So it's like rice is automatically a mass of many individual bits/grains of rice. Beans are not that way, they're countable.

[–] SpaceNoodle@lemmy.world 4 points 2 months ago

Not after they've been refried.

Consider a potato and mashed potatoes.

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[–] SkaraBrae@lemmy.world 18 points 2 months ago (1 children)

It depends on whether you're referring to individual refried beans or the dish 'refried beans' as a whole.

If it's the former, it would be 'too many' (individual) refried beans.

If it is the latter, it would be 'too much' (of) refried beans... Unless you had multiple servings, in which case it would be 'too many' (servings of) refried beans.

That is my opinion: as such it is subject to change should further information come to light.

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[–] finley@lemm.ee 18 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago)

“Too many” if you’re referring to the beans themselves. “Too much” if you’re referring to refried beans as a dish you have been served.

Edit: just remember: “too many” as reference to a quantity of things, “too much” as reference to a volume or a quantity/amount of a thing. In this case, the “thing” was the dish being served (refried beans). Since it was the dish, itself, being considered (not each individual bean) the phrase was being dealt with, grammatically, as one whole unit— a dish that was served to you, of which you had too much.

[–] chicken@lemmy.dbzer0.com 16 points 2 months ago

Because refried beans are as you mention no longer countable, I think "refried beans" should be taken all together as a singular compound noun rather than the word "beans" modified by an adjective. So then "too much refried beans" is the correct way to say it because it isn't plural.

[–] AFKBRBChocolate@lemmy.world 11 points 2 months ago (1 children)

It seems like the problem goes away if you add a "the." I had too much of the refried beans.

[–] toynbee@lemmy.world 3 points 2 months ago (2 children)

Your point is fair, but I respectfully disagree. "Beans" being plural makes me want to use "many." "I had too many of the refried beans" parses fine for me.

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[–] ccunning@lemmy.world 9 points 2 months ago

I think you’re just going to have to call it “too much refried bean paste”

[–] geogle@lemmy.world 7 points 2 months ago (2 children)
[–] thesporkeffect@lemmy.world 2 points 2 months ago
[–] tiredofsametab@fedia.io 2 points 2 months ago

Nah, you're alright; you just had too much maize.

[–] themeatbridge@lemmy.world 5 points 2 months ago (1 children)

Same question, but mashed potatoes.

[–] Asafum@feddit.nl 7 points 2 months ago (1 children)

I would think that would be "too much" because all the potatoes don't matter at that point, it's one entity. There are no more individual potatoes, we are ~~Borg~~ mashed potatoes!

[–] Skua@kbin.earth 2 points 2 months ago

I would instinctively go for "too much mashed potato" rather than potatoes plural, even if I would describe it as mashed potatoes in other contexts

[–] Kolanaki@yiffit.net 5 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago)

"This isn't what I asked for."

"But... It's refried beans."

"Exactly. Beans. I specifically said one refried bean. This is too many refried beans!"

[–] bionicjoey@lemmy.ca 5 points 2 months ago (1 children)

Obviously this is very context dependant, but here's my take:

"I ate too many refried beans" = in one meal, I consumed more refried beans than I should have

"I ate too much refried beans" = over the course of an extended period of time, I ate meals consisting of refried beans more frequently than I should have

[–] MigratingtoLemmy@lemmy.world 3 points 2 months ago

Shouldn't it be "too much of"?

[–] folekaule@lemmy.world 5 points 2 months ago

Since refried beans is not countable, I vote for "too much".

Example:

  • I'm gassy because I had too much refried beans
  • I am gassy because I had too many burritos

Or like someone else suggested, make the noun singular and call them "refried bean paste". This will probably raise more eyebrows than much/many confusion, though.

[–] Tylerdurdon@lemmy.world 5 points 2 months ago

No such thing. You can never have enough.

Mmmmmmm.... Beans

[–] tiredofsametab@fedia.io 4 points 2 months ago

I would say 'too much'; I never talk about a single refried bean (throwing out the whole thing that refritos aren't necessarily even fried twice...)

[–] fan0m@lemmy.world 4 points 2 months ago

I think it depends on if you view beans as individual beans or not.

[–] SpaceNoodle@lemmy.world 4 points 2 months ago (1 children)
[–] xia@lemmy.sdf.org 3 points 2 months ago

NGL... I kinda want to tell someone to reduce their beanage without any context, and walk away.

[–] feedum_sneedson@lemmy.world 3 points 2 months ago

Depends whether you consider the noun countable or not. Too many peas, too much mashed potato. It's purely semantics, I think we can consider refried beans an edge case.

[–] JustZ@lemmy.world 3 points 2 months ago (3 children)

You would use too much, since refried beans is an uncountable noun. You have to add a unit to it to make it countable.

You would say "there's too much refried beans on my plate, and too many cans of refried beans in the pantry."

By adding "cans" to the noun phrase, you've made the refried beans countable, you may now use "too many."

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[–] jordanlund@lemmy.world 3 points 2 months ago

"Too many refried beans"
"Too much refried bean"

Same for scrambled eggs.

"Too many scrambled eggs"
"Too much scrambled egg"

[–] ivanafterall@lemmy.world 3 points 2 months ago

"Scrambled eggs" is kind of similar. You could say, "I had too many scrambled eggs" or, "I had too much scrambled egg."

So I think the correct version is:

"I had too much refried bean."

[–] sik0fewl@lemmy.ca 2 points 2 months ago

Regardless of whether the noun is countable or not, it would typically still be "too much" when referring to how much you've eaten.

Consider the scenario where you've had only one steak (countable noun), but you had too much steak.

Of course, it's not always like this. You might say that you had too many cookies for dessert.

[–] Fermion@feddit.nl 2 points 2 months ago

I believe the customary phrase is "pull my finger."

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