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submitted 9 months ago by throws_lemy@lemmy.nz to c/europe@feddit.de
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[-] fr0g@feddit.de -1 points 9 months ago* (last edited 9 months ago)

An independence vote should maybe not just be a simple majority, I think at least more than 2/3 like what is usually required for a change in consitution would make sense. But other than that, you're just describing how democracy works. Just about no western country is a homogenous group. There are always people of wildly different background and with wildly different views and they often get rules imposed on them they don't like. This is already happening right now. So are you against current countries running democratically as well? You're arguing that a presumed minority of non-independence voting Catalonians will feel disenfranchised, but you're at the same time perfectly fine with the presumed majority of Catalonians feeling disenfranchised right now? How does that make sense? If you're arguing for minimizing disenfranchisement, your point is clearly inconsistent.

The only way to minimize those frictions for a society that can only function in organized groups is to make the units of self-determination relatively small. So yes, I absolutely think that every geographical region that wants to hold an independence referendum should do so. Why not? There's nothing speaking against that. If your concern is that many people might have rules voted on them they don't like than you should be for each individual's votes counting as much as possible.

Also, there's nothing saying that if a country goes independent, there can't be some transitional rulesets, where people can potentially switch nationality, lived by mixed rules for a while etc. I absolutely think that in such cases there should be some rulesets in place to ease the transition and give people some choice. But all that only makes sense if we have some consensus about where the majority of a region wants to go. Which Catalonia isn't even allowed to officially find out where they stand and start negotiating about that.

Maybe it could be gerrymandered to shut up the whining minorities?

How do you gerrymander a region deciding about its independence? If the regional borders for a referendum are "arbitrarily" drawn (all borders are) in a way that 95%+ or whatever support independence, that just means that you just minimized the amount of people who would feel disenfranchised by that decision, which is what you made your main point of concern. Gerrymandering only can be done (maliciously) when te seats/votes for a plurality of administrative units is determined in a first past the post voting system. None of that has any relevance for or applies to an independence referendum.

[-] JubilantJaguar@lemmy.world 3 points 9 months ago* (last edited 9 months ago)

Actually, I agree with all your points here. If individual rights are protected then I have nothing against every town and village declaring independence, especially if a supermajority wants it. And my gerrymandering argument was terrible for the reason you give. I basically share your viewpoint.

Really I was pushing back against what I thought to be your uninformed understanding of the Catalonian situation, which is in fact complicated. This is not an oppressed people - come on, let's get real - and in fact a big chunk of this sort-of-nation hardly sees itself as Catalonian at all. Economic interests are at stake. And as the other poster says, the local politicians behaved completely recklessly when they didn't even have a proper majority. A lot like spoiled self-absorbed children.

In response you'll probably say that that's because they're treated like children, and the solution is to give them the power to secede. And you'd be right. And like Scotland they would probably choose not to, and the whole subject could at last be put to bed, for a while at least.

this post was submitted on 24 Sep 2023
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