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Even gun loving conservative scholars agree that the 2nd amendment is a barely coherent grammatically tenuous mess. It’s notoriously unclear.
But for my part, I don’t see how any sane person reads “A well regulated Militia” and concludes that all regulation is prohibited.
Shhhh, the know-nothings don't know this.
Maybe because the country didn't have the money or resources to equip the "well regulated militia" at that time therefore depended on the people to bring their own arms?
Who?
I mean, "the right of the people shall not be infringed."
Also, correspondence at the time sort of supports this.
Literally every serious constitutional scholar thinks it’s ambiguous, just as a matter of English language. Even Scalia, the arch-right Supreme Court justice who penned the majority opinion for Heller, the decision that established the right to own a personal firearm, wrote:
That isn't a constitutional argument, that is a stare decisis argument.
Here is what is said above that, where it is clearly a constitutional argument, because it references the constitution as evidence- not other courts.