this post was submitted on 15 Nov 2023
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You got a source for that?
You support being uneducated and sticking you head up bibi's ass.
When Hamas said they will repeat the Oct 7th attacks until all of Israel is eradicated, it was all over Lemmy a week or two ago.
Now would that be Israel the state? Or is reading comprehension not a required skill for Zionist shills?
You think their racist ass dog-whistle for eradicating Israel means they are absolutely cool with all the Israeli Jews sticking around?
How stupid are you, eradicate all Israel = eradicate Israeli Jews. From the river to the sea literally means drive the Jews from the river into the sea.
Remember Hamas started this war. Same as the Arabs started the 1948 war, and started the 1967 war.
If Palestine wanted to be free, and not oppressed, maybe they shouldn't have spent the better part of the last 75 years trying to eradicate Israel and the jews.
Uh oh your projecting again.
Bit of a jump to go from "eradicate Israel/all Israel" to "eradicate all israeli jews".
Again Zionist playbook.
River to the sea does not mean that and either you know this or you should actually do some proper research.
The fact Israel colonised occupied land started this off. It wasn't just an empty bit of land.
That is what it means, as stated by the Arab league who expressly invaded Israel on its formation to attempt to eradicate the Jews. That is history, you need to get your facts straight.
It's only in recent years they've tried to rebrand the phrase, because their plan to eradicate the Jews failed.
And the land was not Palestine. It was part of the Ottoman empire, and has been passed from empire to empire throughout history. Everyone there displaced a previous group of peoples.
If you consider Israelis to be colonizers, then so to are the Palestinians. The Jews even have a more historical claim to the land from thousands of years ago than the Palestinians, most of whom showed up only after WW1.
So you're holding a phrase to its meaning 100 years ago and not its current meaning. Language evolves get over it.
Just because the current resident wasn't the original owner of a house, it does not give you the right to evict him and squat in it.
Most Palestinians were there before ww1, sounds like you are describing the European and American Jews.
No, there was a massive Arab immigration into the area following WW1 and the fall of the Ottoman Empire. Most of the current Palestinians have only been there for 100 years.
And I'm following it's original meaning, because that is how Hamas means it. How are you so blind to that? You seem to get all your news from the Euro med Monitor, a propaganda organization with no verifiable sources.
According to both the Peel commission and the 1946 British survey, there was basically none. “Arab illegal immigration is mainly casual, temporary and seasonal,” said Peel, and the 1946 survey states “"… the expansion of the Moslem and Christian populations is due mainly to natural increase…"
The Jewish Historian Roberto Bachi estimates only about 900 Muslims per year immigrated between 1923 to 1946.
Where did the increase come from? According to the British register of Births and Deaths, it came from a natural net increase of 2.7%. (One of the highest recorded birth rates of all of the British controlled lands at 5%, and a high mortality rate of 2.3%.) In fact the estimated number of Muslims in 1947 is simply the number in the 1933 survey plus the net gain.
Peel: https://biblio-archive.unog.ch/Dateien/CouncilMSD/C-495-M-336-1937-VI_EN.pdf
1946 Survey: Population in Palestine and the Increase in Population. British Mandate: A Survey of Palestine: Volume I
Bachi: http://www.cicred.org/Eng/Public...
Vital Statistics figures from The Fertility and Mortality of the Population of Palestine, By: Hinden, Rita. Sociological Review (1908-1952). Jan/Apr40, Vol. 32 Issue 1/2, p29-49.
You seem to get all your information from Israeli propaganda with no verifiable sources.
According to both the Peel commission and the 1946 British survey, there was basically none. “Arab illegal immigration is mainly casual, temporary and seasonal,” said Peel, and the 1946 survey states “"… the expansion of the Moslem and Christian populations is due mainly to natural increase…"
The Jewish Historian Roberto Bachi estimates only about 900 Muslims per year immigrated between 1923 to 1946.
Where did the increase come from? According to the British register of Births and Deaths, it came from a natural net increase of 2.7%. (One of the highest recorded birth rates of all of the British controlled lands at 5%, and a high mortality rate of 2.3%.) In fact the estimated number of Muslims in 1947 is simply the number in the 1933 survey plus the net gain.
Peel: https://biblio-archive.unog.ch/Dateien/CouncilMSD/C-495-M-336-1937-VI_EN.pdf
1946 Survey: Population in Palestine and the Increase in Population. British Mandate: A Survey of Palestine: Volume I
Bachi: http://www.cicred.org/Eng/Public...
Vital Statistics figures from The Fertility and Mortality of the Population of Palestine, By: Hinden, Rita. Sociological Review (1908-1952). Jan/Apr40, Vol. 32 Issue 1/2, p29-49.
You seem to get all your information from Israeli propaganda with no verifiable sources.
WW1 ended in 1918. You're missing some vital years there mate.
The Ottoman empire ended in 1923, your claim was that there was a huge influx of refugees from this collapse than population of Palestine at the time.
The data doesn't back you up.
If you want to find data that counters what I've posted then knock yourself out.
I said post WW1, on multiple occasions.
This was a claim you made it turned out to be false.
The claim that there was mass immigration after ww1 I don't think can be proven because the first modern census was in 1922.
I'd love for you to provide a source for your claim and prove me wrong.