this post was submitted on 23 Jun 2024
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[–] Aqarius@lemmy.world 4 points 3 months ago (6 children)

...I just realized latin doesn't have the "w" foreigner word.

[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 2 points 3 months ago* (last edited 3 months ago) (5 children)

By "the 'w' foreigner word" do you mean Wallace, or words with W in general?

If Wallace: I could've rendered his name by sound; in Classical pronunciation Valis [wɐɫɪs] would be really close. But then I'd need to do the same with Brett (Bres?) and Jules (Diules? Ziuls?) and it would be a pain.

If you mean words with W in general: yup. Long story short ⟨W⟩ wasn't used in Latin itself; it started out as a digraph, ⟨VV⟩, for Germanic [w] in the Early Middle Ages. Because by then Latin already shifted its own native [w] into [β]→[v], so if you wrote ⟨V⟩ down people would read it wrong.

[–] Aqarius@lemmy.world 2 points 3 months ago (4 children)

I mean the Welsh/Waloon/Wallachian/waelsc word for "those people over there" that all the rest of Europe seems to have. It's not unheard of for neighboring people to call eachother 'vlach'. I just never noticed Latin doesn't have it.

[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 2 points 3 months ago

Ah, got it.

The relevant root is Proto-Germanic *walhaz. If I got it right it was used by PG speakers first to refer to a specific Celtic tribe, then other non-Germanic Europeans. (Proto-Slavic borrowed the word but changed the meaning - from "any speaker of a foreign language" to "Latin/Romance speaker".)

Latin never borrowed that root because they simply called any non-Roman "barbarus".

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